Originally posted by Ironside:
oral tradition never goes beyond what is written [in the Bible].
what the apostles taught in word is always congruent with what they wrote.
1Co 4:6 Now, brothers, I have applied these things to myself and Apollos for your benefit, so that you may learn from us the meaning of the saying, [b]“Do not go beyond what is written.” Then you will not take pride in one man over against another.
What was taught in word was put into writing as directed by the Holy Spirit.
[/b]
it's odd that you have used this argument when your protestant forefathers chose not to.
If Paul is using this verse to advocate scripture alone, he would have been advocating one of four principles, which are inconsistent with the rest of his theology:
(1) Accept as authoritative only the Old Testament writings;
(2) accept as authoritative only the Old Testament writings and the New Testament writings penned as of the date Paul wrote 1 Corinthians (circa A.D. 56);
(3) accept as authoritative orally transmitted doctrine only until it has been reduced to writing (scripture) and only while the apostles are alive, then disregard all oral tradition and adhere only to what is written; or
(4) accept as authoritative only doctrine that has been reduced to writing.
Needless to say nobody will say that option 1 is acceptable. We cannot accept option two either, for this would mean all New Testament books written after the year 56 would not qualify under the 1 Corinthians 4:6 guideline. Hence, John's Gospel, Acts, Romans, 2 Corinthians, Galatians, Ephesians, Philippians, Colossians, Philemon, Titus, 1 & 2 Timothy, Hebrews, James, 1 & 2 Peter, 1, 2, & 3 John, Jude, and Revelation would all have to be jettisoned as non-authoritative.
Option three fails because in order for sola scriptura to be a "biblical" doctrine there must be, by definition, at least one Bible verse which says Scripture is sufficient, or that oral Tradition is to be ignored once Scripture has supplanted it, or that Scripture is superior to oral Tradition. But there are no such verses; and as we'll see, 1 Corinthians 4:6 is no exception.
Option four is likewise untenable because it contradicts Paul's express command in to "Stand fast and hold firm to the traditions that you were taught, either by an oral statement or by a letter of ours" (2 Thess. 2:15). Thus, for 1 Corinthians 4:6 to support the theory of sola scriptura, Paul would be contradicting what he wrote in 2 Thess 2:15.
Furthermore, If Paul had been promulgating sola scriptura in 1 Corinthians 4 he would have been in conflict with the practice of the rest of the apostles. Most of the apostles never wrote a single line of Scripture; instead they transmitted the deposit of faith orally. Did their oral teachings carry any less weight of authority than the written teachings of Paul or Peter or John?
So the thing for you to consider is that if most of the apostles did not write any scriptures, how did they teach? Obviously by Oral Tradition!